Tuesday, 2 April 2019

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Biology MCQs Quiz Tests With Answers List


Q.1: Which of the following is an example of “molecule” ?

  1. Chloroplast
  2. A Nerve Cell
  3. DNA
  4. Hydrogen

C

Q.2: An educated guess is called ?

  1. Accumulated Data
  2. Observation
  3. Hypothesis
  4. Conclusion

C

Q.3: The study of fossils is called ?

  1. Environmental Biology
  2. Historical biology
  3. Palaeontology
  4. Social biology

C

Q.4: Production of sweat and sebum is related with ?

  1. Skin
  2. Liver
  3. Lungs
  4. GIT

A

Q.5: The concept that various organisms dominated this planet during various geological time period and thus placing organisms in a time squence came from the studies by ?

  1. Paleontologist
  2. Environmental biologist
  3. Marine biologist
  4. Social biologist

A

Q.6: Which one is not correct for a productive theory ?

  1. It is predictive
  2. It has explanatory power
  3. None of these
  4. It discourages suggestion of different hypotheses

D

Q.7: Vaccine was first developed by-------- ?

  1. Louis Pasture
  2. Edward Jenner
  3. Jaber Ibn Hayan
  4. Aristotle

B

Q.8: Enzyme present in the saliva is-------- ?

  1. lipase
  2. trypsin
  3. ptyalin
  4. invertase

C

Q.9: Viruses are considered living organisms because--------- ?

  1. They can be crystallized
  2. They occur in plants and animals
  3. They are microscopic
  4. They contain DNA and can be reproduced

D

Q.10: The concept that various organisms dominated this planet during various geological time period and thus placing organisms in a time squence came from the studies by------ ?

  1. Environmental biologist
  2. Paleontologist
  3. Marine biologist
  4. Social biologist

B

Q.11: Branch of biology which deals with the study of chemical components and chemical processes in living organisms is called-------- ?

  1. Molecular biology
  2. Physiology
  3. Biochemistry
  4. Atomic biology

C

Q.12: The single healthy megaspore retained within the megasporangium germinates to form an egg containing female gaemtophyte called----- ?

  1. Ovule
  2. Seed
  3. Fruit
  4. Embroyo sac

D

Q.13: An antibody is made of --------- polypeptide chains ?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

D

Q.14: “lubb” sound is produced due to--------- ?

  1. Opening of inlet valve
  2. Closure of inlet valve
  3. Opening of outlet valve
  4. Closure of outlet valve

B

Q.15: Number of cervical vertebrae is--------- ?

  1. 5
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. 12

B

Q.16: Test cross is used to find-------- ?

  1. Trait
  2. Phenotype
  3. Genotype
  4. Ratios

C

Q.17: In human female, fertilization commonly occurs at--------- ?

  1. Proximal part of oviduct
  2. Distal part of oviduct
  3. Uterus
  4. Cervix

A

Q.18: Which of the following combination is an example of self replicating organelles ?

  1. Mitochondria Ribosomes
  2. Mitochondria Nucleus
  3. Mitochondria Chloroplast
  4. Mitochondria Vacuole

D

Q.19: Enzymes ------------------ the activation energy of a chemical reaction ?

  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
  3. Does not effect
  4. Increases or decreases depending upon individual enzyme

B

Q.20: An activated enzyme consisting of polypeptide chain and a cofactor is called------ ?

  1. Apoenzyme
  2. Holoenzyme
  3. Activated enzyme
  4. Both b and c

D

Q.21: The active site of an enzyme-------- ?

  1. Never changes
  2. Forms no chemical bond with substrate
  3. Determined by structure and the specificity of the enzyme
  4. They are non specific in their action

C

Q.22: Which of the statement about cell membrane is not true ?

  1. It contains protein molecules embedded in lipid bilayer
  2. It is a differentially permeable membrane.
  3. It contains charged pores thus ions being charged particles cross cell membrance much easier than neutral particles.
  4. It may get infolded to engulf solid or liquid material.

C

Q.23: Ribosomes + m-RNA ?

  1. Polysome
  2. Phlosome
  3. Polosome
  4. None of these

A

Q.24: Which statement is true about an aqueous medium------- ?

  1. Ionic as well as non ionic substance in aqueous media retains their identity
  2. Enzymes can not perform catalysis reaction in this medium
  3. Ions and molecules move randomly thus are in more favorable state to react with other molecules and ions
  4. It is less favorable media for chemical reactions

C

Q.25: --------% of Glucose normally present in our blood is ?

  1. 0.80%
  2. 0.08%
  3. 1.80%
  4. 8%

B

Q.26: The unicellular organisms ingest large molecules into their cytoplasm from the external environment without previously digesting them. This process is called------- ?

  1. Phagocytosis
  2. Diffusion
  3. Osmosis
  4. Plasmolysis

A

Q.27: Fatty acids containing 18 C atoms and a single double bond is-------- ?

  1. Saturated Fatty acid
  2. Unsaturated fatty acid
  3. Oleic Acid
  4. Plamitic acid

C

Q.28: Following possess bilateral symmetry as larva and radial symmetry as adult ?

  1. Chordata
  2. Hydra
  3. Echinodermata
  4. Hemichordata

C

Q.29: An insulin molecule consists of --------- polypeptide chains ?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

B

Q.30: Hemoglobin molecule exhibits which structural organization of proteins-------- ?

  1. Primary structure
  2. Secondary structure
  3. Tertiary structure
  4. Quaternary structure

D

Q.31: Membranes of the grane are sites where ?

  1. Oxygen is stored
  2. Food is stored
  3. Sunlight is trapped
  4. CO2 is stored.

C

Q.32: Sebum produced from sebaceous glands in a mammal helps in-------- ?

  1. Protection against micro organisms
  2. Temperature regulation
  3. Excretion
  4. All of these

A

Q.33: The cells present in testes and secrete testosterone are-------- ?

  1. Sertoli cells
  2. Germinal cell
  3. Interstitial cells
  4. Spermatocyte

C

Q.34: There are mainly ---------- types of tRNA ?

  1. 170
  2. 25
  3. 20
  4. 15

C

Q.35: Scurvy and beri – beri and caused by the deficiency of--------- ?

  1. Vitamin B and C
  2. Vitamin B and D
  3. Vitamin C and B
  4. Vitamin A and B

C

Q.36: Amoeba belongs to which kingdom-------- ?

  1. Prokaryotae
  2. Plantae
  3. Monera
  4. Protista

D

Q.37: Bacteriopahage that infect E. coli are called------- ?

  1. M type
  2. N type
  3. T type
  4. S type

C

Q.38: Which of the following is incorrect for the lysogenic cycle in life cycle of bacteriophage-------- ?

  1. Phage when gets incorporated with the bacterial chromosome is called prophage
  2. The bacterium continues to live and reproduce normally
  3. Lysogenic bacteria may get infected by the related phage
  4. The cycle may convert into lytic type resulting from environmental exposure

C

Q.39: In the Lysogenic cycle the DNA of the bacteriophage--------- ?

  1. Joins the bacterial chromosomes
  2. Attaches to the inner surface of the host membrane
  3. Is immediately degraded when enters the host
  4. Goes directly to host ribosomes for translation

A

Q.40: Magnesium is present in which of the following--------- ?

  1. Cytochromes
  2. ATP
  3. Chlorophyll
  4. Haemoglobin

C

Q.41: Strong chlorosis is due to the deficiency of ------------- in plants ?

  1. Magnesium
  2. Potassium
  3. Phosphorus
  4. Nitrogen

D

Q.42: The leaf is bilobed with midrib between them. The plant is-------- ?

  1. Saraccnia
  2. Pitcher plant
  3. Dionaea
  4. None of these

C

Q.43: In planaria, numerous small branches which end blindly are called as-------- ?

  1. Digestive tract
  2. Intestinal caeca
  3. Hepatic caeca
  4. Both B & C

B

Q.44: Death cap/death angel (Amanita) and Jack O Latern mushroom are examples of--------- ?

  1. Edible mushrooms
  2. Poisonous mushrooms
  3. Both of these
  4. None of these

B

Q.45: Those fungi which can grow only on their living host and cannot be grown on available defined growth culture medium e.g. various mildews and most rust species are called------- ?

  1. Parasitic fungi
  2. Obligate parasitic fungi
  3. Facultative parasitic fungi
  4. All of these

B

Q.46: Foliose lichen are---------- ?

  1. Stem like
  2. Branching
  3. Leaf like
  4. Crust like

C

Q.47: Simple breaking of mycelium resulting in formation of a new mycelium from each broken segments is called------ ?

  1. Sporing
  2. Conidiation
  3. Budding
  4. Fragmentation

D

Q.48: Spores produced by slime molds are------- ?

  1. Haploid
  2. Diploid
  3. Triploid
  4. None of these

A

Q.49: Of the following which one is not the characteristic of dinoflagellates ?

  1. Most of them are unicellular
  2. They have blooms
  3. None of these
  4. Their cells are often covered with shells of interlocking cellulose plates impregnated with calcium

D

Q.50: The word Archaeobacteria (a division of bacteria) derived from Greek means--------- ?

  1. True bacteria
  2. False bacteria
  3. Recent bacteria
  4. Ancient bacteria

D